High Intakes Of Tend To Increase The Risk Of Developing Chronic Diseases, Such As Cardiovascular Disease, (2024)

Medicine College

Answers

Answer 1

These increase the risk of developing chronic diseases:

1-salt

2-alcohol

3-animal fats

A general definition of a chronic disease is a condition that lasts for a year or longer, necessitates continuous medical care, restricts everyday activities, or both. The main causes of mortality and disability in the US are chronic illnesses including diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.

They are also the main causes of the $4.1 trillion in yearly health care expenses for the country. Foods that are heavy in saturated fats, additional salt, additional sugars, or alcohol are referred to be discretionary choices because of this.

Additionally, they frequently contain little fiber and vital elements like vitamins and minerals.

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Question correction:

High intakes of ______ tend to increase the risk of developing chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, hypertension, diabetes, and obesity.

1-salt

2-alcohol

3-fat-soluble vitamins

4-animal fats

Related Questions

the parents of a child receiving total parenteral nutrition ask the nurse why their child must have their blood glucose monitored so frequently since they are not diabetic. what is the best response by the nurse?

Answers

The blood glucose of the children remains low.

Hypoglycemia is the medical term for low blood sugar levels. Transient hypoglycemia in the first hours after birth is typical and occurs in almost all mammalian neonates. Clinically severe neonatal hypoglycemia signifies an imbalance between the availability and use of glucose and other fuels. Even when early enteral feeding is withheld, healthy full-term human infants have spontaneously elevated glucose levels within the first 24 hours after birth (sometimes longer, but still physiological.This phenomenon is self-limiting, lacks clinical evidence, and is thought to be part of adaptation to postnatal life.2-6 Most newborns undergo gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and compensate for this 'physiological' hypoglycemia through endogenous fuel production through ketogenesis.

Due to low blood sugar of children, they are monitored frequently.

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a client with schizophrenia is started on a regimen of chlorpromazine. after a shuffling gait, - tremors, and some rigidity develop, benztropine mesylate is prescribed. which characteristics do these medications share?

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Both drugs work by inhibiting central acetylcholine receptors. Neither drug inhibits cholinesterase; the only drug that does this is neostigmine (Prostigmin).

When administered in high dosages, benztropine mesylate can make people mentally confused, although it has no effect on chlorpromazine's antipsychotic properties. Both drugs result in dry mouth.

Why is chlorpromazine prescribed?

Chlorpromazine is used to treat the signs and symptoms of schizophrenia, a mental illness that results in disturbed or unusual thinking, loss of interest in life, and strong or inappropriate emotions, as well as other psychotic disorders, which make it difficult to tell what is real from what is imagined.

Can anxiety be treated with chlorpromazine?Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug that can be used to treat anxiety, mania, psychosis, and schizophrenia. Injections: This is a short-acting injectable with 25 mg in 1 ml of injection, and it is typically used in hospitals when needed in an emergency.

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which initial action would the nurse take for a client with bipolar i disorder, manic episode who becomes loud and vulgar and disturbs the other clients

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The initial action that nurse would take for a client with bipolar disorder is by exploring the effect of bipolar behavior on the family.

Your moods can fluctuate between two extremes if you have bipolar disorder, a mental health condition. Manic depression was the term used previously. Feeling depressed, helpless, rundown, distracted, and uninterested in daily activities are all symptoms of this.

An important aspect of a therapeutic relationship's working phase is acknowledging and exploring difficulties. As part of the orientation or introduction phase, the purpose or goals of the therapeutic partnership are established.

Anxiety and tension are present throughout the orientation or first stages of a therapy partnership because of the unpredictability of the scenario. Ambivalence is a typical emotion. The orientation or initial stage of a therapy engagement includes asking the client about their family history.

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a man arrives at the clinic for an annual wellness physical. he is experiencing no acute health problems. which question or statement by the nurse is most appropriate when beginning the interview?

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The statement by the nurse is most appropriate when beginning the interview can be "How has your health been since your last visit?". The correct option is D.

What is nursing?

It entails compassion and patience, as well as empathy and sensitivity. It entails being available for a complete stranger at all hours of the day and night.

It is that ability that allows a patient's loved one to remain calm even in the most stressful situations. Nurses are thought leaders.

Nurses treat injuries, administer medications, perform routine medical examinations, record detailed medical histories, monitor heart rate and blood pressure, perform diagnostic tests, and operate medical equipment, among other things.

As the man is arriving for an annual wellness physical so it will be most appropriate to ask "How has your health been since your last visit?", by nurse.

Thus, the correct option is D.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

A) "How is your family?"

B) "How is your job?"

C) "Tell me about your hypertension."

D) "How has your health been since your last visit?"

which is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder?

Answers

The option that is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder is option B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.

What is the somatic disorder about?

In regards to the disorder case, the nurse need to know that the proper outcome for a client that has ]somatic symptom disorder is that be the client need to list at most three likely adaptive coping strategies to handle with stress as at day 2.

Note that this is due to the fac that the symptoms of somatic symptom disorder are linked with psychosocial distress, and as such The option that is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder is option B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.

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See full question below

3. Which would be considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder?

A. The client will admit to fabricating physical symptoms to gain benefits by day 3.

B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.

C. The client will comply with medical treatments for physical symptoms by day 3.

D. The client will openly discuss physical symptoms with staff by day 4.

patient-reported outcome measures in ms: do development processes and patient involvement support valid quantification of clinically important variables?

Answers

The quality of the data that PROs create has, up to this point, constantly suffered from a lack of conceptual frameworks, patient involvement, and precise definitions of the concepts of interest. To maximize the utility of pivotal clinical trials, more thorough PRO instrument development must be done.

Do patient involvement and the development process for patient-reported outcome measures in MS promote the reliable measurement of clinically significant variables?

Background: Studies on multiple sclerosis (MS) frequently analyze patient-reported outcomes (PROs). However, there are issues with the validity of linked data due to the variability in the quality of instrument development processes.

objectives: Review the development of a few PROs that are frequently used in MS studies, paying particular attention to the ideas measured, the usage of conceptual frameworks, and the level of involvement from MS patients. to learn more about PlwMS's opinions and advice for using these PROs.

Results: There were frequently gaps in the definitions, explanations, and conceptualizations of the measuring variables. PlwMS participated in PRO development in a variety of ways. Rarely was ethnic diversity documented. Individualization, simplicity, time commitment, and manner of administration were all noted by PlwMS as influencing PRO usability.

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strathdee sa, patrick dm, currie sl, et al. needle exchange is not enough: lessons from the vancouver injecting drug use study. aids1997; 11: f59–f6

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To describe prevalence and incidence of HIV-1, hepatitis C virus (HCV) and risk behaviours in a prospective cohort of injecting drugs users (IDU).

What is the result of above study ?

Out of 1006 IDU, 65% were male, Caucasian (65%), or Native American (27%). HIV-1 and HCV prevalence rates were 23 and 88%, respectively. The majority (92%) had participated in Vancouver's NEP, which accounted for 78% of all syringes. IDUs who are known to be HIV-positive and HIV-negative both reported lending used syringes in equal amounts (40%) 39% of IDUs with HIV-negative status borrowed used needles in the six months before. HIV-positive IDU were more likely to often inject cocaine (72 versus 62%; P 0.001) than HIV-negative IDU. Low education, unstable housing, commercial sex, borrowing needles, being an established IDU, injecting with others, and frequent NEP attendance were independent predictors of HIV-positive serostatus. HIV incidence was estimated to be 18.6 per 100 person-years based on 24 seroconversions among 257 follow-up visits (95% confidence interval).

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19 year old g2p1 three day history of vagin*l spotting and cramping most likely finding on transvagin*l

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The most common symptom of placenta previa is bright red, painless bleeding from the vagin*. This is most common in the third trimester of pregnancy. The symptoms of placenta previa may look like other health conditions.

What is vagin*l spotting and cramping ?

Bleeding between periods or that isn't directly related to your regular menstrual cycle is known as metrorrhagia. This can include spotting or mild to moderate bleeding that may be accompanied by cramps or abdominal ache. Teenagers and women approaching menopause are more likely to get metrorrhagia.

The fertilised egg adheres to the uterine wall after fertilisation. Spotting and, occasionally, cramps, one of the first indicators of pregnancy, might result from this.

STIs like chlamydia, which are sexually transmitted illnesses. infection of the cervix or uterine lining. abnormalities of blood clotting, such as von Willebrand disease. additional medical issues, such as hypothyroidism, liver illness, or chronic kidney disease

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magee la, abalos e, von dadelszen p, sibai b, easterling t, walkinshaw s. how to manage hypertension in pregnancy effectively. br j clin pharmacol. sep 2011;72(3):394-401.

Answers

To manage hypertension in pregnancy effectively given an antihypertensive medication as soon as possible, but at least within one hour.

Hypertension in pregnancy :

The following dangers are associated with high blood pressure during pregnancy: a reduction in blood flow to the placenta. The fetus may obtain less oxygen and nutrients if the placenta doesn't get enough blood. Low birth weight, intrauterine growth restriction, and premature birth can result from this.

What causes hypertension in pregnancy?

High blood pressure during pregnancy may result from unhealthy lifestyle choices. Major risk factors for high blood pressure include being overweight or obese and not exercising regularly.

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I understand question you are looking for :

how to manage hypertension in pregnancy effectively.

a nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment of a client's abdomen. identify the sequence in which the nurse should perform the following steps. ati

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the steps that the nurse should follow in order to do the evaluation

Inquire if the customer has ever experienced stomach ache.Assess the skin's integrity on the abdomen.Check the abdomen for bowel sounds by auscultation.Each of the four quadrants of the abdomen should be pounded.Lightly feel the abdomen for any soreness

Abdominal assessmentIf the patient has a record of abdominal pain, the nurse should ask before beginning an abdominal assessment. The nurse should examine the client's abdomen to start the assessment, paying attention to the skin's symmetry, contour, and integrity. The nurse should then listen for peritoneal friction rubs, vascular sounds, and bowel sounds. Because bowel movement or stimulation can enhance bowel motility and cause erroneous results from amplified bowel sounds, auscultation comes before palpation and percussion. To check for tympany and dullness following auscultation, the nurse may percuss the belly in a systematic sequence starting in the right lower quadrant and moving up to the higher right quadrant, upper left quadrant, and finally the lower left quadrant.The nurse should next lightly palpate the abdomen in order to find any pain or muscular guarding before finishing the procedure.

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the question you are looking for is

A nurse is preparing to perform an abdominal assessment on a client. Identify the sequence of steps that the nurse should take to conduct the assessment. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the selected order of performance. Use all of the steps)

1-Auscultate the abdomen for bowel sounds.

2- Inspect the abdomen for skin integrity

3- Palpate the abdomen lightly for tenderness

4- Ask the client about having a history of abdominal pain.

5- Percuss the abdomen in each of the four quadrants.

which nursing action(s) reflect(s) the evaluation phase of the critical thinking process? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. quizlet

Answers

The nurse identifies that a client's pain is not being adequately treated

The nurse documents the client's response to suctioning

The nurse determines the client did not lose the expected 2 lb (0.90 kg)

What is critical thinking process ?

A triage nurse evaluates the cases at hand and determines the patients' treatment priorities. A plumber determines which supplies are most appropriate for a certain task. An attorney examines the evidence and develops a plan to win the case or determine whether to reach a settlement outside of court.

You can focus more on your strengths and prevent any form of restrictive or negative beliefs by using critical thinking to help you understand yourself. The ability to communicate your ideas can improve your quality of life.

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free education, free health care, and more free time are some benefits of while a brain drain is one of its most negative outcomes.

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Socialism has benefits like free education, health care and free time. But the most negative outcome of it is brain drain.

In accordance with the social and economic ideology of socialism, property and natural resources should be owned or controlled by the government rather than the private sector. The socialist perspective holds that people don't live or work alone; rather, they collaborate with one another. Everyone who contributes to the development of a good is entitled to a part in it since everything that people create is, in some way, a social product. Therefore, society as a whole ought to possess or at the very least govern property for the good of all of its members.

This belief pits socialism against capitalism, which is based on individual choice in a free market and permits how products and services are divided. Private ownership of the resources is the cornerstone of capitalism.

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eight weeks after cessation of muscular endurance training, muscular endurance loss is typically around what percentage?

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Muscular endurance loss is around 30-40% 8 weeks after cessation of muscular endurance training.

Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to withstand repetitive contractions against a force for an extended length of time.

There are several reasons why muscular endurance and strength are crucial: increase the endurance with which you can carry out tasks like opening doors, lifting boxes, or cutting wood, lessen damage chance, assistance in healthy weight maintenance.

Numerous factors, such as muscle fiber types (proportions of slow and rapid twitch muscle fibers), endurance training, strength, genetics, and trainability, have an impact on muscular endurance.

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youle m, osio m, alcar study group. a double-blind, parallel-group, placebo-controlled, multicentre study of acetyl l-carnitine in the symptomatic treatment of antiretroviral toxic neuropathy in patients with hiv-1 infection. hiv med. 2007;8(4):241–250. doi:10.1111/j.1468-1293.2007.00467.x

Answers

The objective of the study was to assess the safety and efficacy compared to placebo of intramuscular ALCAR in HIV-positive patients with symptomatic distal symmetrical polyneuropathy

What is the result of above study ?

For the intent-to-treat (ITT) population, there was no statistically significant difference in VAS changes over the course of 14 days across groups, but for the efficacy-evaluable (EE) population, ALCAR treatment significantly reduced pain compared to placebo (P=0.022).

Although there was a higher percentage of patients in the ALCAR group compared to the placebo group who experienced a TSS improvement over the course of 14 days, the differences were not statistically significant. According to the VAS, TSS, and McGill Pain Questionnaire, patients' pain decreased during the open-label phase.

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gonorrhea is treated with . multiple choice question. specific drug co*cktails antibiotics antivirals antiretrovirals

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Gonorrhea is treated with antibiotics.

Both men and women can contract gonorrhea, an infection brought on by a bacteria that is spread through sexual activity. Most frequently, gonorrhea affects the throat, urethra, or rectum. Gonorrhea can also infect the cervix in females.

Antibiotics are used to treat gonorrhea in adults. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention advises treating uncomplicated gonorrhoea with the antibiotic ceftriaxone, which is administered as an injectable, together with oral azithromycin due to the emergence of drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae strains (Zithromax).

If cephalosporin antibiotics, such as ceftriaxone, cause an adverse reaction in you, you may be prescribed oral gemifloxacin (Factive), injectable gentamicin, or oral azithromycin.

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instrument assisted soft-tissue mobilization: a survey of practice patterns among allied health professionals. j athl

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Instrument assisted soft-tissue mobilization: These instruments allow more direct treatment of the soft tissues involved with movement.

What is soft tissue mobilization therapy?

In order to break up adhesions and improve your muscle function, your licensed physical therapist may employ soft tissue mobilization techniques on your muscles, ligaments, and fascia.

What does instrument assisted soft tissue mobilization do?

We frequently employ the instrument-assisted soft tissue mobilization (IASTM) approach in physical therapy. IASTM functions similarly to a regular massage, however instead of a physical therapist's hands, specialized devices are employed. These tools make it possible to treat the soft tissues involved in movement more directly.

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efficacy and safety of tisagenlecleucel in adult patients with relapsed/refractory follicular lymphoma: interim analysis of the phase 2 elara trial

Answers

Most people with follicular lymphoma (FL), which has a relapsing and remitting pattern, nonetheless have an incurable form of the illness. Treatment results for patients with relapsed/refractory (r/r) FL usually deteriorate with each additional line of therapy, underlining an unmet need.

This is true of tisagenlecleucel's effectiveness and safety in adult patients with relapsed/refractory follicular lymphoma.

The most prevalent kind of low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma is follicular lymphoma (NHL). White blood cells congregate to create masses in your lymph nodes or other organs, which is how it manifests.

Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma are the two primary varieties of lymphoma. A persistent, chronic fever, unintentional weight loss, and excessive perspiration, especially at night, might all be among these symptoms (night sweats).

It is uncommon for follicular lymphoma to infect organs other the lymphatic system or the bone marrow. Large tumors can occasionally develop in the abdomen.

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briefly describe your health-related experiences. be sure to include important experiences that are in your amcas application, as well as any recent experiences.

Answers

Anything that results in the exposure of a person to healthcare professionals results in them taking care of them.

What are health experiences?

Through our research group on health experiences, we examine people's perceptions of health and sickness by speaking with them about their experiences with disorders including cancer, heart failure, and autism. We emphasize the ways in which human tales may influence policy and enhance services.

Patient experience research is a significant component of many clinical research projects within the department, indicating our dedication to understanding and utilizing patient outcomes in all facets of health care delivery. For instance, we are developing an intervention for the TASMIN5S study that will assess a blood pressure self-monitoring intervention for stroke and TIA patients.

Therefore, the exposure of a person to healthcare professionals that results in them taking care of them is a health-related experience.

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a nurse is assessing a client who is taking levothyroxine. the nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of levothyroxine overdose?

Answers

Overdosing on levothyroxine will cause hyperthyroidism symptoms as sleeplessness, tachycardia, and heat.

Constipation is a sign of hypothyroidism and indicates an inadequate dose of levothyroxine. Drowsiness is a symptom of hypothyroidism and indicates a too low dose of levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a thyroid drug that replaces hormones normally produced by the thyroid gland to control the body's energy and metabolism. Hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine (lowering thyroid hormone levels). If your thyroid doesn't make enough of this hormone naturally, this drug is prescribed.The thyroid hormone thyroxine comes in a synthetic version called levothyroxine, sometimes called L-thyroxine. Used to treat thyroid hormone deficiency, especially severe myxedema, coma, and Hashimoto's disease.

Therefore, levothyroxine causes a number of side effects.

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a client in the acute stage of inflammation will experience vasodilation of the arterioles and congestion in the capillary beds. the nurse would assess the client’s skin for

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The nurse would assess for the chemicals like histamine and would check for redness, increased heat, swelling etc. After a particular injury, soluble mediators like cytokines, acute phase proteins, and chemokines are released, which encourage neutrophil and macrophage migration to the site of inflammation. This is the beginning of acute inflammation.

Histamine is one of the most well-known chemical mediators that cells release during inflammation; it causes vasodilation and raises vascular permeability.

Acute inflammation is clinically identified by the presence of the five cardinal indicators of rubor (redness), calor (increased heat), tumor (swelling), and dolor (pain) (loss of function)

Discuss the characteristics of inflammation and how they relate to the clinical signs of inflammation that have been documented (i.e., redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function).

The second line of protection and the initial reaction to harm is the inflammatory response.

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what kind of information does the nutrition facts label give about requirements for essential nutrients? a. the number of calories from vitamins and m

Answers

The kind of information that nutritional facts gives about is the percent of various nutrients in one serving. The correct option is C.

What is nutritional labeling?

Nutrition labels are frequently displayed on the back or side of packaging as a panel or grid.

Energy (kJ/kcal), fat, saturates (saturated fat), carbohydrate, sugars, protein, and salt are all included on this type of label. It may also contain additional information about certain nutrients, such as fiber.

They assist consumers in making informed decisions about the food they purchase, in storing and using it safely, and in planning when they will consume it.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

A) the number of calories from vitamins and minerals

B) the number of servings needed for a nutritious daily diet

C) the percent of various nutrients in one serving

a nurse-manager is participating in a hospital’s quality control efforts and is collating data sources. what data source should the manager identify as a qualitative source?

Answers

The data source that the nurse manager should identify as a qualitative source is the results of the interviews derived with discharged clients.

What is qualitative source data?

The expression qualitative source data makes reference to all information that does not involve continuous values but instead, it falls into categories (i.e. qualities or characteristics).

In conclusion, the data source that the nurse manager should identify as a qualitative source is the results of the interviews derived with discharged clients.

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One claim error that would cause low reimbursem*nt is
Question 5 options:

a) procedures not paid.

b) payment not received.

c) precertification not completed.

d) data error.

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation:

It makes sence

the nurse is caring for a client on a monitored telemetry unit. during morning assessment, the nurse notes abnormal ecg waves on the telemetry monitor. which action would the nurse do first?

Answers

The first thing that the nurse should do is to (B) assess the client.

Telemetry is a monitoring device that dispenses with the need to be connected to a bedside cardiac monitor and enables continuous ECG, RR, and SpO2 monitoring while the patient is moving around. Skin preparation, electrode and lead placement, equipment upkeep, patient monitoring, and education are all necessary for telemetry accuracy.

According to studies, patient safety may be enhanced and monitoring-related anxiety can be decreased by providing the patient and family with the proper knowledge. The ability of nurses to recognize ECG abnormalities puts them in a great position to take timely action and reduce patient consequences.

Assessing the client comes first when a nurse notices an irregular rhythm on a telemetry monitor. The nurse might decide on the following nursing action after doing a client evaluation.

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Question correction:

The nurse is caring for a client on a monitored telemetry unit. During morning assessment, the nurse notes abnormal ECG waves on the telemetry monitor. Which action would the nurse do first?

A. Call the physician with a report.

B. Assess the client.

C. Assess for mechanical dysfunction.

D. Reposition the client.

24 year old g2p1 woman who underwent an elective termination two days ago presents to the emrgency room with abdominal and pelvic pain

Answers

This patient has postoperative endometritis, which may be caused by bacteria that were introduced into the uterine cavity during the dilation and curettage procedure. It's crucial to start taking antibiotics right away. To check for foetal products after starting antibiotics, an ultrasound should be ordered. If the patient were to be located, further dilation and curettage would be necessary. A Beta-hCG level two days after the termination would be useless. The use of a hysterosonogram is not advised in cases of infection. Laparoscopy is not warranted for this patient.

What is termination of pregnancy ?

A procedure to end a pregnancy called an abortion.

It's also referred to as a pregnancy termination on occasion. Either a surgical procedure or the administration of medication will end the pregnancy.

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a nurse is providing instructions about bowel cleansing with polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (peg) for a client who is going to have a colonoscopy. which of the following information should the nurse include?

Answers

To prevent dehydration, drink an additional liter of fluid during preparation time."

"Expect bowel movements to begin 3 hr following completion of solution."

---"Abdominal bloating might occur."

"Drink 400 mL every hour until bowel movements are clear."

While PEG is well-tolerated, adverse effects include nausea, bloating, and abdominal discomfort.

What is colonoscopy ?

Colon cancer (also known as bowel cancer) and colon polyps, which are growths on the lining of the colon that occasionally become cancerous or have the potential to become cancerous, can both be detected during a colonoscopy. To determine the cause of signs and symptoms including bleeding from the rectum, a colonoscopy may be performed.

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which initial approach would the nurse use to establish a therapeutic one-on-one relationship with a guarded, suspicious client diagnosed with schizophrenia? quizlet

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The initial approach which the nurse would use to establish a therapeutic one-on-one relationship with a guarded, suspicious client diagnosed with schizophrenia will be in two ways:

A casual meeting with the clientA honest one to one reply with the client, in which the client agrees to do all thing as recommended for the health.

Schizophrenia is a severe mental illness in which reality is perceived by sufferers strangely. Schizophrenia may cause a concoction of hallucinations, delusions, and severely irrational thinking and behavior that make it difficult to go about daily activities and can be incapacitating.

People with schizophrenia require lifelong treatment. A personalized mix of medication and therapy is typically used to treat schizophrenia.Antipsychotic medications and cognitive behavioral therapy will be used in the majority of cases (CBT).

Typically, a community mental health team provides daily care and treatment to people with schizophrenia.

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the nurse must use the metric system in dosage calculations. which conversions are correct? (select all that apply.)

Answers

The conversions below are correct:

1 kilogram = 1000 grams

1 gram = 1000 milligrams

1 milligram = 1000 micrograms

The decimal system used in the metric system is based on the power of ten. The gram (g, gm, G, Gm) for weight, the liter (L) for volume, and the meter (m, M) for linear measurement or length are the primary units of measure used in dose calculations.

Prefixes like nano, micro, milli, centi, and kilo stand for a certain order of magnitude and denote the size of the units in powers of 10 of the base unit.

The following list includes some of the most popular metric system conversion formulas:

Multiply by 1000 to change km to m.Add 1000 to convert kilograms to grams.Multiply by 1000 to convert grams to milligrams.Divide by 1000 to convert from liters to kiloliters.

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the nurse is performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient who recently had a stroke. which of these questions would be most important to ask?

Answers

The question which would be most important for a nurse to ask when performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient who recently had a stroke is:

Are you able to dress yourself?

Option b is the correct answer choice

It is very important for the healthcare provider to atleast understand certain condition of a stroke patient while assessing him/her. This evaluation will help the nurse to give appropriate medical care as to improving the condition.

What is meant stroke?

In health line, stroke is a health condition which happens when a particular blood vessel ( usually an artery ) in the brain get damaged, thereby making it difficult for the brain cells and tissues to get adequate oxygen

In order words, when the blood vessels supplying the brain bleeds such that the tissues in the it's supplying doesn't get oxygenated blood anymore, it leads to this condition known as stroke.

So therefore, the question which would be most important for a nurse to ask when performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient who recently had a stroke is:

Are you able to dress yourself?

Option b is the correct answer choice

Complete question:

The nurse is performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient with a recent stroke. Which of the following questions would be most important to ask?

a. Do you wear glasses?

b. Are you able to dress yourself?

c. Do you have any thyroid problems?

d. How many times a day do you have a bowel movement?

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In the household system of measure, using a dropper that is not provided with a medication can be problematic because the?

Answers

Household system of measure can be problematic:

-The patient might not know how to measure drops,

-The medication may be too viscous,

-The aperture may be too large, and

-The size of the aperture may change the size of the drops.

What is Household system of measure

The household system uses cups, teaspoonfuls, and other common household measurements to indicate the dosages of medicines recommended to patients. As a result, a medical assistant who is proficient in both conversion methods can provide patients with the correct household measurements for medications that were ordered using the metric system.

In order to prevent prescribing patients the incorrect dosage or amount of household measure for treatments or prescriptions whose dosage is only specified in the metric system.

Therefore, it is important for medical assistants to learn how to translate between the domestic and metric systems.

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High Intakes Of Tend To Increase The Risk Of Developing Chronic Diseases, Such As Cardiovascular Disease, (2024)

FAQs

High Intakes Of Tend To Increase The Risk Of Developing Chronic Diseases, Such As Cardiovascular Disease,? ›

A diet high in salt is linked to hypertension (high blood pressure), which can increase your risk of heart disease and stroke. Most of us consume more than 10 times the amount of salt we need to meet our sodium requirements (salt contains sodium and chloride).

What is an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease? ›

Behaviors that can increase risk

Eating a diet high in saturated fats, trans fat, and cholesterol has been linked to heart disease and related conditions, such as atherosclerosis. Also, too much salt (sodium) in the diet can raise blood pressure. Not getting enough physical activity can lead to heart disease.

Which of the following increases the risk of developing chronic disease? ›

Most chronic diseases are caused by a short list of risk factors: tobacco use, poor nutrition, physical inactivity, and excessive alcohol use. By avoiding these risks and getting good preventive care, you can improve your chance of staying well, feeling good, and living longer.

How does diet affect cardiovascular disease? ›

Limit unhealthy fats. Limit the amount of saturated and trans fats you eat. This helps lower your blood cholesterol and lower your risk of a common heart condition called coronary artery disease. A high blood cholesterol level can lead to a buildup of plaques in the arteries, called atherosclerosis.

What high is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease? ›

High blood pressure (hypertension) is one of the most important risk factors for CVD. If your blood pressure is too high, it can damage your blood vessels. Read more about high blood pressure.

What is high risk of cardiovascular? ›

Hypertension, atrial fibrillation, high cholesterol, diabetes, non-diabetic hyperglycaemia and chronic kidney disease are high risk cardiovascular conditions.

What are the leading causes of cardiovascular disease? ›

High blood pressure, high blood cholesterol, and smoking are key risk factors for heart disease. Several other medical conditions and lifestyle choices can also put people at a higher risk for heart disease, including: Diabetes. Overweight and obesity.

What increases chronic diseases? ›

Most chronic diseases are caused by a short list of risk factors: smoking, poor nutrition, physical inactivity, and excessive alcohol use. Some groups are more affected than others because of factors that limit their ability to make healthy choices.

Who is most at risk for chronic diseases? ›

Chronic diseases, often referred to as noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), usually emerge in middle age after long exposure to an unhealthy lifestyle involving tobacco use, a lack of regular physical activity, and consumption of diets rich in highly saturated fats, sugars, and salt, typified by "fast foods." This ...

What is most likely to lead to the development of a chronic disease? ›

Behavioural risk factors, such as tobacco use, unhealthy diet and physical inactivity; and. Intermediate risk factors, such as elevated blood lipids, diabetes, high blood pressure and overweight/obesity.

What is the #1 worst habit for your heart? ›

Smoking is one of the most harmful things people can do to themselves,” Dr. Maniar says. Blood flow drops, slashing oxygen that fuels the heart, which compensates by spiking blood pressure, heart rate and rhythm, and can lead to hardened and narrowed arteries and blood clots causing cardiovascular disease.

Why does cardiovascular disease occur? ›

More than four out of five CVD deaths are due to heart attacks and strokes, and one third of these deaths occur prematurely in people under 70 years of age. The most important behavioural risk factors of heart disease and stroke are unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, tobacco use and harmful use of alcohol.

What are the primary major risk factors for cardiovascular disease? ›

Heart attack and stroke risk factors that you can change include:
  • tobacco smoking.
  • poor diet.
  • physical inactivity.
  • overweight or obesity.
  • alcohol intake.

Which populations are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease? ›

Stress and excessive alcohol consumption may also contribute to cardiovascular disease risk. This risk is higher among Mexican Americans, American Indians, native Hawaiians, and some Asian Americans, in part because of the higher rates of obesity and diabetes in these populations.

What is high cardiac risk? ›

Many heart risk calculators classify your risk of cardiovascular disease as: Low: Less than a 5% risk. Borderline: A 5% to 7.4% risk. Intermediate: A 7.5% to 19.9% risk. High: More than a 20% risk.

What are risk factors for developing CVD Quizlet? ›

Smoking. Overweight. Having uncontrolled high blood pressure. Smoking.

Which is considered a risk factor for CVD? ›

Risk factors that can be controlled, or changed, are called modifiable. The more risk factors a person has, the greater the chance of heart disease and stroke. Major modifiable risk factors are: high cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking, diabetes, obesity, physical inactivity and poor nutrition.

Why does risk of cardiovascular disease increase with age? ›

Aging processes in other organ systems, including the muscles, kidneys, and lungs, also likely contribute to heart disease. Changes in metabolism, including insulin resistance, are increasingly recognized as risk factors for heart disease.

Which of the following are risk factors for cardiovascular disease apex? ›

Risk factors for CAD often include:
  • Smoking.
  • High LDL cholesterol, high triglycerides levels, and low HDL cholesterol.
  • High blood pressure (hypertension)
  • Physical inactivity.
  • Obesity.
  • High saturated fat diet.
  • Diabetes.
  • Family history.

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